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In this section you can ask your questions about bridge. Ed Hoogenkamp (Barcelona, Spain) will try to reply as well as possible. His motto is: every question deserves a reply.
Your bridge questions and our replies will be published on this page.
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Drury with three card support over partner's opening third in hand? |
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Dear Ed and Peter,
In IMP scoring, neither side vulnerable, I held as South: E/—
| | | ♠ | A Q 9 | | | ♥ | 10 9 6 | | | ♦ | 9 4 | | | ♣ | A J 8 7 3 | |
| West | North | East | South |
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| Partner |
| I | | — | —
| pass | pass | | pass | 1♠1 | pass | ??
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1 Can be a four-card suit with as few as 10 points Playing reverse Drury, 2♣ clubs promises 4-card support and 2NT denies any spade support. What is the best bid here? Thanks, Bill Yu |
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How strong is responder's reverse? |
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Dear Ed and Peter,
Does the 'reverse' apply to responder as well as opener? I have it in mind that responder needs 11 points to reverse — is that correct?
Thanks Avril Knappett |
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Dear Ed and Peter,
What is loser count? When is it used?
Thanks Ms Vee, |
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Dear Ed and Peter,
Once my partner has discarded and I understand he wants a higher ranking suit, spades; I hold ♠AKx. Which card do I play first? Do I play the ♠K and switch to the ♠x and hope he will return the suit to my ♠A? Then what? Partner was very upset I did not lead the spade suit. Thanks for a prompt reply. We use Lavinthal discards. Alla Westbrook |
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More about Puppet Stayman after 2NT |
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Dear Ed and Peter,
Following up on your discussion of major suit 5-4 hands after partner opens 2NT (click here to read it), playing Puppet Stayman, how do you respond with 5 spades and 4 hearts and no slam interest? Obviously you can't transfer to spades and then bid hearts. Do you transfer to spades and then follow with 3NT, missing a potential heart fit? Thank you. Jerry Miller |
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Dear Ed and Peter, I think Brink's views on justice are a bit odd. People who gamble on lower odds deserve to win sometimes too! How unjust it would be if you always lose having a 45% chance of winning?
The decision to bid 6♦ on this hand (those who want to read the whole of Sjoert Brink's article click here; the deal in question is the second one; the NS-hands, but not Sjoert's report, is repeated below, in Ed's reply, -Ed/Peter) is borderline at best. Here is a quick analysis using Deep Finesse (a computer programme capable of analysing whether or not a contract can be made, -Ed/Peter). On 1000 hands we get: 700 hands: both contract makes 164 hands: 6♦ makes 6NT doesn't 102 hands: 6NT makes 6♦ doesn't 34 hands: both contract don't make.
Let's compute the expected IMP gain/loss of bidding 6♦, with the assumption that NS at the other table bid 6NT. on 700 hands we lose 2 IMPs on 164 hands we win 16 IMPs on 102 hands we lose 17 IMPs on 34 hands it doesn't matter
Overall: -510 IMPs/1000 hands = -0.5 IMP/hand Quite a big difference !
So not only the decision to bid 6♦ is worse than bidding 6NT but all the complaints about justice should be revisited. How the author would feel if his 6♦ contract makes and he was told that "it's so unjust I can't handle it!".
Regards :) Piotrek Lopusiewicz
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Dear Ed and Peter, Hi! Partner opens 2NT. My hand: | ♠ | K J 5 4 | | | ♥ | Q 7 6 5 3 | | | ♦ | 4 3 | | | ♣ | 4 2 | |
So should I say 3♣, using Smolen, or should I transfer? Just to "tickle" you: I have an answer from Eddie Kantar but I don't understand it!
Best regards and hope to hear from you, Brita Flach |
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After their intervention over our 1NT opening: Rubensohl |
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'The most interesting questions of visitors from the Dutch sister site (Bridgevaria.nl)'. Dear Ed and Peter.
We play Rubensohl if an opponent overcalls 2♣ or 2♦ over our 1NT opening. If partner has one or two major four-card suits, she has to reply 3♣. Our problem is that we play 2NT and up as transfer bids (2NT transfers to clubs, 3♣ transfers to diamonds). Or should we only do so without intervention?
Thank you in advance. Best regards. Els |
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Splinter or enquiring after a guard? |
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'The most interesting questions of visitors from the Dutch sister site (Bridgevaria.nl)'.
Dear Ed and Peter, My partner and I open four-card majors. As South I had: | ♠ | 8 | | | ♥ | A Q 10 5 2 | | | ♦ | A 8 | | | ♣ | Q J 9 4 2 | |
| West | North | East | South |
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| | Partner
| | I | —
| — | — | 1♥ | | 1♠ | 3♠ | pass | ?? |
I assumed partner's 3♠ bid was Splinter (slam try, singleton or void in spades, Ed/Peter) with hearts as the agreed trump suit. However partner thought his 3♠ bid asked for a guard in spades, in order to play 3NT. I bid 4♦, control-showing, and the sad ending was 6♥ doubled, down two and a solid bottom. What is the most practical meaning for the 3♠ bid in this situation? Thanks, Léon Bijnsdorp |
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Opener's response to partner's jump shift |
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'The most interesting questions of visitors from the Dutch sister site (Bridgevaria.nl)'.
Dear Ed and Peter. Partner and I had a bidding misunderstanding. We open five-card majors and play Walsh* — as described by Ed Hoogenkamp! I had 17 HCP in a 1♠-4♥-3♦-5♣ shape. Partner had 17 HCP as well, six diamonds and no four-card major. The bidding went as follows: | West | North | East | South |
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| | partner | | I
| | — | — | — | 1♣ | | pass | 2♦ | pass | 2♥ | pass
| 3NT | pass | pass | pass
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Thirteen easy tricks: we missed 7NT!! 2♦ was game forcing. I decided to show my four card heart suit (reverse) so partner would understand I had 15+ HCP and an unbalanced hand. Partner thought I was asking for a heart guard for 3NT. My thoughts were now, that partner had understood I held 15+ HCP, so he obviously wasn't strong enough to bid 4NT (quantitatively: 'If you have extra strength, please bid a slam'). What went wrong? Should I perhaps have bid 3♥? Best regards, Bep Dohmen |
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